This month's quiz asks readers to evaluate medication management in a 67-year-old woman with a history of pain related to degenerative joint disease that is well controlled with diclofenac.
This month's quiz asks readers to determine the most likely diagnosis for a 26-year-old woman who presents with a history of diarrhea characterized by two to three semibloody stools per day associated with cramping lower abdominal pain.
This month's quiz asks readers to evaluate a 38-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of ulcerative colitis whose symptoms have not improved with initial prednisone treatment.
This patient has no surgical indications. A barium esophagram is the initial test for evaluation of achalasia.
Barium esophagography is recommended as the initial test for evaluation of dysphagia but is not recommended for the evaluation of typical GERD symptoms.
A 65-year-old man is evaluated after a screening ultrasound for abdominal aortic aneurysm showed a gallbladder polyp and numerous gallstones. He reports no symptoms. Which is the most appropriate next step in management?
This month's quiz asks readers to determine the most appropriate treatment for a 46-year-old man with an amebic liver abscess.
Given this patient's absence of alarm symptoms and normal laboratory test results, further structural testing with CT imaging or abdominal ultrasonography is likely to be of low yield; therefore, such ... A gastric emptying test is used to evaluate
More information about MKSAP is available online. Ambulatory pH testing is the most appropriate next diagnostic test for this patient. ... The selection of a diagnostic test to confirm or exclude laryngopharyngeal reflux is controversial.
A 30-year-old woman is evaluated for a 2-month history of diarrhea with three to five loose stools per day.